I don't often get to talk much about these sorts of things on The Pit...but this is a topic that has always confused me, and Derek Fincham happened to remind me of it during his discussion of Artists Resale Rights.
Interesting post the other day over at Illicit Cultural Property blog. My question is this: In the instance in which Damien Hirst is the buyer or one of the buyers of his own work, is he also receiving the royalties on the sale? I hope someone out there can enlighten me.
Comments